It is black and Hispanic isn't it? And it is at a higher percent to there races than other crimes are to the white race?
What am I getting at? They used to give us that monotone drivel that crime was evenly distributed among the races. But it isn't true! None of those statistics regarding race are true. I doubt that they were ever true.
So now that that no longer holds up as a defense they want to say because what? They have a higher poverty rate they commit more crime? Isn't it just the opposite? You have a higher poverty rate because you are more prone to criminal behavior?
And race needs to be defined in one other subcategory. Who has the genetic defects in their own race. In other words who represents the least of their own race genetically and is therefore more prone to crime! Now that would be beneficial scientific and government study? Why do it? Because you like freedom don't you? If not just leave this country.
Race therefore needs two classifications to accurately describe it such as Hispanic RGS2. Which would mean Hispanic but with a species Regressive Gene Serotonin Variant #2.
Thomas Paul Murphy
Originally published on 08 08 2015 at: www.themilwaukeeandwisconsinnews.blogspot.com