Question with regard to the article just before this one about the Democratic Party of the South 07 27 2014
Prohibition ended in 1933.
FDR became President in 1933.
Nazi Germany arose from ~1933 to 1945
The U.S. was sending supply Ships to Great Britain before we entered the war.
Great Britain did not tell the United States about the Japanese movement in the Pacific even though they had knowledge of it.
The United States gets its first gun control measure banning full auto machine guns in 1934. And this is a year after Prohibition ended. What do you read into that?
The buildup to WWII started in 1931.
http://history.howstuffworks.com/world-war-ii/buildup-to-world-war-2.htm
And the United States was indeed in WWI.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_events_preceding_World_War_II
Adolf Hitler came into power in 1933.
So the United States is building up for WWII. WWII started in 1939 through 1945.
http://usgovinfo.about.com/blguntime.htm
Oddly enough the BATF's mission was to keep guns out of the hands of the mentally incompetent and that is just who the BATF gave them to in the latest sting???? That doesn't make any sense either!
But the question is with all the world instability why would the United States create the first gun ban? How come we were so Confident that our homeland would be safe? That doesn't seem to make sense to me. That American Citizens would have gun rights put on them then. I don't think any legitimate President would make his country and citizens less prepared for that. Why was he so confident the United States would have limited involvement; that wouldn't spread to our homeland?
To me it reads like those who apposed the repeal of Prohibition were sent off to War? Those who could not stand the presence of the mentally retarded from fetal alcohol syndrome were sent off to war? I can see how something like this, whereby normal Americans are victimized in favor of the birth defective children of the wealthy could happen all over again.
And why take the guns away from the bootleggers if they don't have to worry about getting caught for bootlegging anymore? If the fear was that they would establish other criminal inroads such as prostitution or gambling? So that makes sense. But organized crime wasn't abolished was it. In fact the Kennedy's who came into power were post bootleggers??? So the guns were taken to protect the bootleggers? And Joe Kennedy established the import rights to hard liquor from some countries in Europe with FDR's son? So they were attempting to protect that new business? Or were they taking the guns away from the citizens that played by the rules so that they would not go after the establishments? And JFK was going to go straight? The mafia was establishing inroads in Texas. Guns were sent to Cuba via Texas. And Kennedy had a stand off with Russia and was killed by a man who defected from the United States to Russia worked at a high tech aerospace company and somehow got back in the U.S. Did he come in on one of those boats from Cuba? Was Oswald dropped off by the Russians in Cuba in the Bay of Pigs incident? And about this time we had the first labeling of the mental affliction called schizophrenia?
http://schizophrenia.com/history.htm#
Bleuler coined the term schizophrenic in 1911. That is the same year the famous Browning 1911 hand gun came about and was used in service in WWI. WWI was from 1914 to 1918. What did WWI and Schizophrenia have in common other than that. I think that we aren't learning everything here. And also the cab driver of the leader, was it Franz Ferdinand had to be in on the assassination of him that started WWI? Makes one also question the participation of cab drivers in all other crimes doesn't it? Did they all have Franz Ferdinand's same mind?
Thomas Paul Murphy
Originally published on 07 27 2014 at: www.themilwaukeeandwisconsinnews.blogspot.com
Copyright 2014 Thomas Paul Murphy
Prohibition ended in 1933.
FDR became President in 1933.
Nazi Germany arose from ~1933 to 1945
The U.S. was sending supply Ships to Great Britain before we entered the war.
Great Britain did not tell the United States about the Japanese movement in the Pacific even though they had knowledge of it.
The United States gets its first gun control measure banning full auto machine guns in 1934. And this is a year after Prohibition ended. What do you read into that?
The buildup to WWII started in 1931.
http://history.howstuffworks.com/world-war-ii/buildup-to-world-war-2.htm
And the United States was indeed in WWI.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_events_preceding_World_War_II
Adolf Hitler came into power in 1933.
So the United States is building up for WWII. WWII started in 1939 through 1945.
http://usgovinfo.about.com/blguntime.htm
Oddly enough the BATF's mission was to keep guns out of the hands of the mentally incompetent and that is just who the BATF gave them to in the latest sting???? That doesn't make any sense either!
But the question is with all the world instability why would the United States create the first gun ban? How come we were so Confident that our homeland would be safe? That doesn't seem to make sense to me. That American Citizens would have gun rights put on them then. I don't think any legitimate President would make his country and citizens less prepared for that. Why was he so confident the United States would have limited involvement; that wouldn't spread to our homeland?
To me it reads like those who apposed the repeal of Prohibition were sent off to War? Those who could not stand the presence of the mentally retarded from fetal alcohol syndrome were sent off to war? I can see how something like this, whereby normal Americans are victimized in favor of the birth defective children of the wealthy could happen all over again.
And why take the guns away from the bootleggers if they don't have to worry about getting caught for bootlegging anymore? If the fear was that they would establish other criminal inroads such as prostitution or gambling? So that makes sense. But organized crime wasn't abolished was it. In fact the Kennedy's who came into power were post bootleggers??? So the guns were taken to protect the bootleggers? And Joe Kennedy established the import rights to hard liquor from some countries in Europe with FDR's son? So they were attempting to protect that new business? Or were they taking the guns away from the citizens that played by the rules so that they would not go after the establishments? And JFK was going to go straight? The mafia was establishing inroads in Texas. Guns were sent to Cuba via Texas. And Kennedy had a stand off with Russia and was killed by a man who defected from the United States to Russia worked at a high tech aerospace company and somehow got back in the U.S. Did he come in on one of those boats from Cuba? Was Oswald dropped off by the Russians in Cuba in the Bay of Pigs incident? And about this time we had the first labeling of the mental affliction called schizophrenia?
http://schizophrenia.com/history.htm#
Bleuler coined the term schizophrenic in 1911. That is the same year the famous Browning 1911 hand gun came about and was used in service in WWI. WWI was from 1914 to 1918. What did WWI and Schizophrenia have in common other than that. I think that we aren't learning everything here. And also the cab driver of the leader, was it Franz Ferdinand had to be in on the assassination of him that started WWI? Makes one also question the participation of cab drivers in all other crimes doesn't it? Did they all have Franz Ferdinand's same mind?
Thomas Paul Murphy
Originally published on 07 27 2014 at: www.themilwaukeeandwisconsinnews.blogspot.com
Copyright 2014 Thomas Paul Murphy
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